¶ … Euthyphro's fourth and fifth definition of holiness and Socrates criticism of them. What is Socrates and Euthyphro's view of the gods, in contrast to Euthyphro's initial characterization of the gods at the start of their conversation? Finally relate the discussion of the fifth definition of holiness to the claim Socrates makes about the relationship to 'the god' in the Apology. At first, over the course of his fourth definition Euthyphro advocates that he would turn in a relation of his, if that relation committed an ill act, because he would strive in all things to obey the will of the gods. Then, finally, in his fifth definition Euthyphro states that "let me simply say that piety or holiness is learning, how to please the gods in word and deed, by prayers and sacrifices. Such piety is the salvation of families and states, just as the impious, which is unpleasing to the gods, is their ruin and destruction." In other words, Euthyphro advocates following the rules of the city and commonly accepted filial and religious law, out of frustration with arguing with the philosopher. At first, Euthyphro defines holiness as what is pleasing to the gods. But Socrates first points out that the gods often transgress in myth, these upstanding moral laws. What is more important, says Socrates, is to act in such a fashion that is good, and if one is good, then surely one will be pleasing and moral to the gods.

Euthyphro first relies...

This is why he at first states that he would turn in his own father, if he found the man had committed an unjust action. However, finally, he relies upon common custom and morality as a definition of moral goodness. Socrates, however, seeks a higher definition upon principle, and thus he appeals not to the conventional concepts of the gods in myth and the laws of the nation-state, but to a higher and more idealized conception of the divine in his "Apology," a conception of the divinity that is not encapsulated in either common civic or religious and filial laws.
1) What is Euthyphro's 1st definition of holiness, and why does Socrates object to that definition?

At first, Euthyphro states that "Piety is doing as I am doing; that is to say, prosecuting any one who is guilty of murder, sacrilege, or of any similar crime-whether he be your father or mother, or whoever he may be-that makes no difference; and not to prosecute them is impiety." In other words, piety is to act impartially like the Gods, although as Socrates points out, "do you really believe that the gods, fought with one another, and had dire quarrels, battles, and the like, as the poets say, and as you may see represented in the works of great artists?" The gods are cruel, and capricious, at least, in the myths human beings tell. Rather, it is better to value,…